From these 2 verses u can c that Jesus is only saying and doing what God tells him to do, therefore he spoke the “Word of God” or what God told him to say. If you still think Jesus is God I guess you would understand the ending of John 5:30 as “…I (God) seek not to please myself but him who sent me.”

“Similarly, John 1:1 – 14 does not say that Jesus was God in the flesh, but that he was the word made flesh. Adding anything to that is interpretation, and we would interpret the phrase as saying that Jesus fulfilled God’s word (see http://bibleq.info/answer/463/ for more details).”……

This is not correct because the Holy Bible say this about the Word being GOD and this in no interpretation only scripture based…..

John 1″In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was GOD.”

So then Jesus being the Word (and the Word was GOD) that was made flesh and…..

John 1:3 says “All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

It is no different now than 2000 +/- years ago that this verse can apply….

John 1:10 ” 10He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.”

Praise Jesus He reveals himself to His children of Light. There are those who still sit in darkness who are stagnent in half truth. “Almighty Lord remove the scabs from their hearts and minds and reveal YOUR truth to them i pray! Amen.”

John 1:5″And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.”

Matthew 18:3″And said, Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.”

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As far as the original text goes, the reason that they are in different languages was because they were written at different times for different audiences. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew because it was for the people of Israel, who spoke Hebrew. It was later translated in Greek to be used in Egypt and elsewhere in the world, and the translation into Greek is used when quoting the Old Testament in at least some parts of the New Testament. Generally there are not major differences between the Hebrew and Greek versions of the Old Testament. The Greek. In the same way, the New Testament was written in Greek so that the message could reach through the Roman empire, which used Greek as a common language (particularly in the East). So the reason for not translating it all from one language is that it was not all originally written in one language.

The next strand is translation. While there are are many translations into English, appealing to different audiences and translated at different times, they will all by and large agree on the core message of the passage they are translating, and the message of the Bible can come from them all (though it may be harder to find in some than in others).

The final strand is interpretation, and here there is much more variety than in the other two strands. I think a lot of the reason for this is that, while the original text and translation largely deal with an individual section by itself (to try and find the most likely reading of it), interpretation has to consider how the text fits into the larger message of scripture. Interpretation can also be affected by both what you already think is in the text and what you would like to find in the text (translation can be affected by this too, but there is usually much less scope for it).

As can be seen from the answer above, we believe that John 8:58 is not a claim by Jesus that he was God, and translations do not say it. That is interpretation. Similarly, John 1:1 – 14 does not say that Jesus was God in the flesh, but that he was the word made flesh. Adding anything to that is interpretation, and we would interpret the phrase as saying that Jesus fulfilled God’s word (see http://bibleq.info/answer/463/ for more details).

*I* am *before* Abraham’s birth!”

The emphases in the Greek are as I indicated.

The “am” is clearly present tense; “is born” then must be future.

Look at the context. It is about Abraham’s birthday versus Jesus’ birthday. Note that Abraham looked forward to Jesus’ birthday; And Abraham saw his birthday and celebrated it:

Joh 8:56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my [birth]day: and he saw it [my birthday], and was glad [celebrated].
Joh 8:57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?

So the question posed when Jesus says that Abe saw his birthday is essentially, “but Abraham died way longer than 50 years ago!” Jesus responds that Abes birth is still future… Jesus has arrived *before* Abraham’s birth!

Of course, he must be speaking of his resurrection. But they didn’t like his answer and picked up rocks. For further information, see “The Life of Brian.”

This teaching is something Jehovahs Witnesses teach they call it scriptual truth!

Before Abraham, I am. Why is this so difficult to understand? In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God. If we believe that God is eternal and outside of time and God created time itself, then surely God would describe himself in ever present tense? There is no illogic in this – He just IS.

Jesus was not hesitant about affronting the Jews. The whole point was that they had lost the heart of the Law and only held on to the legality.